Act 3 Scene 1 (Beatrice gulling scene)

How does the form of the language in this gulling scene differ from that used in the scene with Benedick?
 In this scene, Beatrice is deceived and her personality changes suddenly, as does Benedick's. However, they differ, as the women in Beatrice's scene speak in verse which is more romantic, whereas in Benedick's the men speak in prose. This is to contrast more explicitly the difference between men and women.
 They are also different because the men in Benedick's scene exaggerate and over-act, claiming Beatrice to be in love, making her out to be more and more desperate every time something is said - "Maybe she doth but counterfeit", "she loves him with an enraged affection" to "down upon her knees she falls, weeps, sobs, beats her heart, tears her hair, prays, curses, 'O sweet Benedick! God give me patience!'" - whereas the women are more refined and selective in their choice of words - they claim Benedick to love Beatrice but should advise him otherwise, and are more personal in what they say to make Beatrice believe it, whereas Benedick wants to believe it. This shows the maturity and competence of the women (the underdogs) in comparison to the hesitance of the men and how they exaggerate more as the conversation develops - "Why, what effects of passion shows she?" "What effects, my lord?".
 Benedick's gulling scene is more comedic (bawdy) and the other more conscious and cunning, though both are deceptive plots. Shakespeare changes language over the two scenes to accentuate the differences in sex.

What are 3 elements found in common in the gulling of both Benedick and Beatrice?
 Firstly, the personality changes - both characters start out being self-deceptive of their love for each other, but by the end of both scenes they are talking in verse, which suggests romance, as does the monologue from each character at the end of both scenes.
 Secondly, the deceivers - the people who deceive Benedick and Beatrice are their closest friends, making the scenes comedic. Not only are they deceived, but deceived indirectly. Benedick and Beatrice overhearing is intentional - "See you where Benedick hath hid himself?"- to gull them into thinking they know something they weren't supposed to, and consequently believe what the hear.
 Both scenes are single sex scenes. This is probably because the women and the men would handle the situation in two completely different ways and women did not speak among men unless spoken to.

What is unusual about the form of the language of the last ten lines in this scene? Why does Shakespeare have Beatrice speak like this?
 Beatrice’s speech in the end of the scene is written in couplets and in verse. The form of Beatrice’s speech reflects the subject and contrasts the way in which she has spoken in previous acts. Until Act III, Beatrice has been disdainful towards love and marriage and has spoken in prose; however, she now speaks in verse about requiting Benedick’s love and marrying him.
 Shakespeare has Beatrice speak like this to show the acknowledgement of Benedick's love has enticed her break out of self-deception, when she was speaking in prose, to her now speaking in verse to show the audience that she has fallen in love, as it suggests romance.